User blog comment:Emlightened/Little Bigeddon/@comment-24061664-20170117003234/@comment-24061664-20170117155017

Let n=12↑↑12 and we want to know if (n,1) formula, rank n and 1 free variable formula, is finite (in equivalence). Emlightened showed that if there are only finitely many of the (n+1,k) formula, (n,k+1) formula is also finite. It means that if (n+1,0) is finite, (n,1) is also finite. But how can we show (n+1,0) is finite?

What happens if we define a number k^2 (k=Little Bigeddon) by just using "+1" k^2 times in the formula? How is such formula excluded in the definition of Little Bigeddon?