User blog comment:B1mb0w/Strong D Function and f epsilon nought (n)/@comment-5529393-20150809072759/@comment-10262436-20150809074242

So D(m,m,0)>>f_w.2(m) is correct but

D(m.2,m,0)>>f_w.3(m) is not correct ? I cant see the logic.

Do you agree D(m+1,m,0)>>f_w.2+1(m) ? This uses the same proofs as before. All I need to do is equate the ordinal w.2 to phi...

why wouldn't this work ?