User blog comment:PsiCubed2/Help Me Understand Ordinals Beyond the BHO/@comment-1605058-20170220180917/@comment-5529393-20170307025256

It would be surprising to me that there would be any change in the value of ψ(ψᵢ(0)) if it was reasonably defined. If your own definition turned out to reach a different ordinal, most likely it would because something got screwed up in the definition and it turned out much weaker than it should be.