Talk:Buchholz's function

Non-unique normal form
According to the definition in the article, both $$\psi_0(\psi_1(0))$$ and $$\psi_0(\psi_0(\psi_1(0)))$$ are in normal form, while they both are equal to $$\varepsilon_0$$. This is obviously wrong, the normal form should be unique. Janek37 (talk) 18:52, May 18, 2019 (UTC)