User blog comment:Wythagoras/FGH Dollars Function/@comment-5150073-20130710155414/@comment-3427444-20130710162014

Nope, psi_1 can still use Omega as well as Omega_2. On a less related note, since we are using the psi function, not theta, psi(Omega_2) is actually equal to psi(zeta(Omega+1)).