User blog comment:Googleaarex/Warp Notation/@comment-10429372-20140325063600/@comment-5529393-20140330113147

Hmm, I don't think so. While there are problems with your notation (like the one King2218 mentions above), it's pretty clear that, for example, your notation won't take you to $$\psi(\psi_I(0))$$. It likely goes to $$\varepsilon_0$$, possibly $$\varphi(\omega,0)$$.