User blog comment:Wythagoras/Catching function in normal ordinals/@comment-11227630-20140203095754/@comment-10429372-20140204134925

Hyp cos, is ψ(ΨΞ(ω,0)(0)) equal to ψ(ΩΩ ω )?

And if so, is ψ(ΨΞ(ω,0)(Ωω)) equal to ψ(ΩΩ ω +1)? (Or is ψ(ΨΞ(Ω ω,0) (0)) equal to ψ(ΩΩ ω +1)?)