User blog comment:Emlightened/Hypernomials (Γ₀)/@comment-25337554-20160114102411/@comment-27513631-20160116155549

No. Why the heck would that be implied? It's pretty easy to show that $$n\langle X\langle2\rangleX\rangle n\approx. f_{\varepsilon_0}(n)$$, which would be \(\theta(\varepsilon_{\Omega+1})\) on the SGH, much larger than the claimed \(\Gamma_0\).

Why do you think it's SGH, not HH/FGH?