User blog comment:Plain'N'Simple/A question for proof-theory experts/@comment-35392788-20191029194318/@comment-35392788-20191030224013

I understand. But even then, the totality of the function is only one part of the condition that I presented, so if we consider it entirely, is it still an issue ? Is this issue gone when turning the equivalence into an implication like I did in my previous answer ?