User blog comment:Hyp cos/Analysis - BEAF, FGH and SGH (part 3)/@comment-25418284-20140627064155

Okay, good to see a formal definition for once. Why is \(C(0) = \psi(\Omega_\omega)\)? Can you show that \(\exists k: \forall n: g_{\psi(\Omega_\omega)}(n + k) > f_{\psi(\Omega_\omega)}(n)\)?