User blog comment:P進大好きbot/New Issue on Traditional Analyses/@comment-39541634-20190825100759/@comment-31663462-20190830002846

"Has anyone actually written the above claim?"

Indeed, I have seen many people write such a statement. In fact, I am not even familiar with a set theoretic definition which actually works like that. The issue with the expression is immediately obvious, provided that ψ is increasing and ψ₁(α) < Ω₂ < Ω₃, yet despite having pointed these two properties out to someone in the very definition they had posted... Like goodness, please at least write actual equalities.