User blog comment:Triakula/Uncomputable functions defined as a sequence of computable functions/@comment-35470197-20200131231857

I could not understand why h(n) is uncompuable. (I mean that I think that it is actually uncomputable, but I do not have a proof.) Do you have some evidence? Of course, if h(n) eventually dominates all f_i(n)'s, then it is obvious. But it does not immediately follow from the definition, right?