User blog comment:PsiCubed2/How to make Deedlit's Mahlo-level notation more intuitive/@comment-27513631-20180807204248

I think the part of your argument that's missing is why ψ is more intuitive than θ - χ(a,b) behaves like θΩ(a,b) and I(a) behaves like ψΩ(a), but why is the latter desirable/preferable over the former?