User blog comment:Wythagoras/FGH of Dollar Function new version/@comment-11227630-20131026094553/@comment-3427444-20131027052022

On the blog post "Ordinal Notations V: Up to a weakly Mahlo cardinal", Deedlit wrote:

"We then have ψI(1,0)(α) equal to the αth fixed point of β → I(β)."

Doesn't this mean that II I... = ψI(1,0)(0)?